Question 4.8.0.1. Let $\operatorname{\mathcal{C}}$ be an $\infty $-category. Under what conditions does there exists an equivalence of $\infty $-categories $\operatorname{\mathcal{C}}\rightarrow \operatorname{\mathcal{D}}$, where $\operatorname{\mathcal{D}}$ is an $(n,1)$-category?
$\Newextarrow{\xhookrightarrow}{10,10}{0x21AA}$